KnightHawk434th
15+ Year Contributor
- 44
- 1
- Mar 7, 2007
-
Plymouth,
Indiana
I searched, but not very efficiently so yell at me if you feel necessary 
. Anyhow, I just have a quick question that I'm trying to find a cost-efficient answer to. I spun a bearing back in May of this year, and rebuilt my motor's bottom end. New pistons, new rings, new rods, ALL new bearings, block honed/degreased (head and all), crank turned (.020 rods, .010 mains) new oil pump, new water pump and put it all back together. Well I have been babying it for around 750 miles, didn't have money for an oil change, and got 3/4 ballsy on it around 800. Well, 850 rolls around and I had a timing problem...ok took it home and fixed that, drove it back to college and heard my rod knocking halfway there. When I put the bearings in, it was late at night and cylinder 2's bearing ended up getting put it backward and spun in the rod itself. Well that was a brief overview of my situation now here is the question...
The bottom end (all my parts listed above) has 850 miles on it, so I doubt anything has COMPLETELY settled/broken in by now but it's possible. Would I be able to replace only the rod for cylinder 2 and all bearings (main/rod), have my crank checked out and turned if necessary, clean my oil pump so it is free of shavings, clean the block of shavings (obviously will have to tear it down) and get by with that? I've spoken with a few guys and some say I can do it that way and be perfectly fine, some say there will be a balance issue, and others say it would be cheaper to get a remanufactured block (they go for $1500 PLUS!) or a junkyard block (no luck, but the one I found if still there was $450), than replace a rod and bearings with having my crank turned. Now I have and EXTREMELY tight budget and would just like for it to run at this point, so can I do it my way or should i not even try? Any light that can be shed on this issue would be MUCH appreciated. Thanks in advance!
-Ben
. Anyhow, I just have a quick question that I'm trying to find a cost-efficient answer to. I spun a bearing back in May of this year, and rebuilt my motor's bottom end. New pistons, new rings, new rods, ALL new bearings, block honed/degreased (head and all), crank turned (.020 rods, .010 mains) new oil pump, new water pump and put it all back together. Well I have been babying it for around 750 miles, didn't have money for an oil change, and got 3/4 ballsy on it around 800. Well, 850 rolls around and I had a timing problem...ok took it home and fixed that, drove it back to college and heard my rod knocking halfway there. When I put the bearings in, it was late at night and cylinder 2's bearing ended up getting put it backward and spun in the rod itself. Well that was a brief overview of my situation now here is the question...The bottom end (all my parts listed above) has 850 miles on it, so I doubt anything has COMPLETELY settled/broken in by now but it's possible. Would I be able to replace only the rod for cylinder 2 and all bearings (main/rod), have my crank checked out and turned if necessary, clean my oil pump so it is free of shavings, clean the block of shavings (obviously will have to tear it down) and get by with that? I've spoken with a few guys and some say I can do it that way and be perfectly fine, some say there will be a balance issue, and others say it would be cheaper to get a remanufactured block (they go for $1500 PLUS!) or a junkyard block (no luck, but the one I found if still there was $450), than replace a rod and bearings with having my crank turned. Now I have and EXTREMELY tight budget and would just like for it to run at this point, so can I do it my way or should i not even try? Any light that can be shed on this issue would be MUCH appreciated. Thanks in advance!
-Ben
....Thanks guys
