Blk95gs
20+ Year Contributor
- 711
- 5
- Apr 18, 2002
-
Havre De Grace,
Maryland
Hey all,
I performed my first compression test yesterday afternoon on my 95 TSi AWD w/ 125k miles with a friend of mine who has likely done this a million times. I wanted to ask a quick question about this.
Everyone I have ever talked to says that a 15psi variance between 2 cylinders could be a sign of a problem. We didn't do a wet test (where you put a capful of oil in the cyl and retest it) but the normal test showed the following numbers:
Testing from left to right... 180-185-170-175.
All of the plugs looked fine, none were fouled or anything like that. Now for the question I had.
I saw the 15psi between 2 cylinders, but my friend (who is one of the smartest people I've ever met) said that the 15psi would be determined if the optimal compression on the car would be 150psi/cylinder. So for engines that have higher optimal numbers, I would assume that the margin between 2 cylinders would be greater? 15psi is 10% of 150, so 10% of 178 (stock comp ratio on 2g 4g63-t) is obviously 17.8psi.
Is that assumption valid? I tried searching but really can't pinpoint an exact answer to this. I feel like the test shows very good numbers for a car of this age and mileage.
I performed my first compression test yesterday afternoon on my 95 TSi AWD w/ 125k miles with a friend of mine who has likely done this a million times. I wanted to ask a quick question about this.
Everyone I have ever talked to says that a 15psi variance between 2 cylinders could be a sign of a problem. We didn't do a wet test (where you put a capful of oil in the cyl and retest it) but the normal test showed the following numbers:
Testing from left to right... 180-185-170-175.
All of the plugs looked fine, none were fouled or anything like that. Now for the question I had.
I saw the 15psi between 2 cylinders, but my friend (who is one of the smartest people I've ever met) said that the 15psi would be determined if the optimal compression on the car would be 150psi/cylinder. So for engines that have higher optimal numbers, I would assume that the margin between 2 cylinders would be greater? 15psi is 10% of 150, so 10% of 178 (stock comp ratio on 2g 4g63-t) is obviously 17.8psi.
Is that assumption valid? I tried searching but really can't pinpoint an exact answer to this. I feel like the test shows very good numbers for a car of this age and mileage.

