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Ring end gap question

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95 gsx

15+ Year Contributor
145
0
Apr 2, 2006
Coal City, Illinois
Im having a motor built and I specified that I wanted 0.005 per inch of bore on the rings. I stopped by the machine shop today to get an update and the machinist said he gapped the rings to 0.028 (first and second ring). I know the second ring is supposed to be gapped larger than the first but the first ring is already 0.010 more than what I wanted. Am I going to be seeing a lot of blowby with gaps this big? Should I just get another set of rings and gap them myself?
 
Each piston manufacturer has different ring gap recommendations. Generally its something like 0.005" per inch of bore. This would give you 0.017". The second ring is usually just a couple thousanths different than the first. If you search around online most dsm's have gaps anywhere between 0.015"-0.030".

I'm sure your machinist knows what he is doing, if in doubt, ask him about the gap.
 
Well, thanks for the input. I just thought from what I read in the merged ring end gap thread that .028 was a little big. Ill run the motor and see what happens...
 
Unless you plan to run a GT42r at 40 PSI, an .028 top is way too big. You will have more blow-by with lower cylinder pressures. If you're going to be less than 500HP, you would want something like a .017-.021 top and about .002-.005 larger on the seconds.

IMO, he screwed up and should -bare minimum- replace your top set for you.
 
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